1. Bacalah teks yang akan diparafrasa secara keseluruhan.
2. Pahami topik atau tema dari teks tersebut, untuk teks berbentuk narasi pahami pula alur atau jalan ceritanya.
3. Carilah kalimat utama pada setiap paragraf untuk menemukan gagasan atau ide pokok paragraf tersebut.
4. Catatlah gagasan pokok setiap paragrafnya.
5. Perhatikan kalimat penjelas, pilihlah kalimat penjelas yang penting dan buanglah yang hanya berupa ilustrasi, contoh, permisalan, dan sebagainya.
6. Pilihlah kala atau kalimat yang efektif untuk menceritakan kembali. jika perlu gunakan kata yang sepadan atau ungkapan yang lebih mewakili pengertian yang panjang, tetapi dapat dipahami.
7. Jika ada kalimat langsung, ubahlah menjadi kalimat tidak langsung agar lebih singkat.
8. Ceritakan atau uraikan kembali dengan bahasa yang lebih mudah dipahami dan ringkas.

I.              Paraphrasing Method 1: Use Different Vocabulary with the Same Meaning

For example, look at this original sentence and two paraphrased equivalents:

Original Text

“It can be difficult to choose a suitable place to study English.”

Paraphrasing Text

“It is often a challenge to pick up a relevant school to learn English.”

“It is sometimes hard to select an appropriate place to learn English.”

II.              Paraphrasing Method 2: Change the Order of Words

If the original sentence has two or more clauses, change the order of the clauses.

Original Text

“If they have some help, most people can paraphrase effectively. However, practice is

important because paraphrasing is difficult.”

Paraphrasing Text

“Most people can paraphrase effectively, if they have some help. Paraphrasing is difficult, however, so practice is important.”

III.              Paraphrasing Method 3: Use Different Grammar

a. Change some of the words in the original sentence into different parts of speech (you will

often need to change the word order and some other words, too).

Original Text

“The most effective way to build your English skill is to study regularly.”

Paraphrasing Text

“The most effective way of building your English skill is to do studying on a regular basis.”

b. If the original sentence is in the active voice, change it to passive or vice versa.

Original Text

“To improve English, you should learn new vocabulary on a daily basis.”

Paraphrasing Text

“To improve English, new vocabulary should be learned on a daily basis”

Paraphrasing Examples 1

Original sentence:

The most effective way to build your English skill is to study regularly.”

After paraphrasing:

“The most effective way of building your English skill is to do studying on a regular basis.”

• If the original sentence is in the active voice, change it to passive or vice versa.

Original sentence:

“To improve English, you should learn new vocabulary on a daily basis.”

After paraphrasing:

“To improve English, new vocabulary should be learned on a daily basis”

PRE-PARAPHRASING: EXERCISE

Directions: Rewrite each of the sentences, using the words in parentheses. Look first for the part of the original sentence that will need to be replaced. Find the subject of any verbs—who is doing what? Make any other changes you think are needed.

1. People trying to interpret a situation often look at those around them to see how to react. (base reactions on)
2. There are three things bystanders must do if they are to intervene in an emergency. (necessary)
3. In a crowd, then, each person is less likely to notice a potential emergency than when alone. (tends to….less)
4. Even if a person defines an event as an emergency…(decides)
5. … the presence of other bystanders may still make each person less likely to intervene. (may feel less inclined)

Sample Rewrites:

1. People trying to interpret a situation often base their reactions on those around them.
2. Three things are necessary for bystanders to intervene in an emergency.
3. In a crowd, then, each person tends to notice a potential emergency less than when alone.
4. Even if a person decides that an event is an emergency…
5. …each person may feel less inclined to intervene in the presence of other bystanders.

Paraphrasing Exercise

Original text:

“Romeo and Juliet is not only the tale of two young, doomed lovers; it is the story of how youth can be destroyed when the banality of adulthood is imminent” (Smith 76).

Which one is the correct paraphrase:

1. Romeo and Juliet is not only a story of a young pair of tragic lovers; it is a tale of the destruction of youth in the face of the monotony of adulthood (Smith 76).

1. It is the uninspired lifestyle of being an adult, and the destruction of one’s childhood innocence that results from its onset, that truly characterizes Romeo and Juliet, not simply the story of tragic unrequited love (Smith 76).

Original text

• “Students need to be more cognizant of the fact that universities are looking for both high grades and extracurricular activities when accepting new students” (Jones, 2005, p. 255).

Which one is the correct paraphrase:

1. Young people must recognize that colleges are seeking good grades and outsides activities when admitting students (Jones, 2005).

1. When considering the admission process at a college, academic achievement and participation in school and community activities are both equally important for students. (Jones, 2005, p. 255).

Choose the appropriate button to identify the statement that best paraphrases the topic sentence.

1. There are those who claim the American dollar bill’s symbol of a pyramid topped with an eye bears a secret meaning. However, the pyramid was never meant to be mysterious. On the contrary, the pyramid on the dollar bill was a carefully chosen symbol designed to characterize the United States as a place of progress and faith. The Roman numerals on the pyramid base refer to 1776, the year the country was founded. The pyramid is also unfinished, representing our country’s future growth. The eye in a triangle radiating light represents the overseeing eye of a deity. The motto above the pyramid, “Annuit Coeptis,” means “He has favored our undertakings.” Below the pyramid, the motto “Novus Ordo Seculorum” means “a new order of the ages.”

Which of the following best paraphrases the topic sentence?

1. All of the images printed on the $1 bill symbolize America’s principles and goals.
2. The pyramid and eye on the back of the $1 bill was carefully created to represent American values.
3. The dollar’s symbolism is typical of American currency.
4. American currency should be redesigned to better reflect our country’s separation of church and state.

1. In her famous 1969 book, On Death and Dying, author Elisabeth Kübler-Ross identified five stages of death (denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance). Ever since the publication of that best seller, Kübler-Ross’s five stages have generally been accepted as accurate, even scientific. Recently, however, Kübler-Ross’s well-known sequence has come under fire, in part because more attention is being paid to the eccentric views on death she publicly expressed starting in the 1970s. For instance, Kübler-Ross began claiming that death did not exist at all. Inspired by what she claimed was an “out of body” experience, she started talking about death as the fountain of youth. From her new perspective, death was not an end but the beginning of spiritual renewal, a time when people would “become complete again.” Her description of death as a “sixth stage,” where people refreshed themselves before returning to the living was criticized as irrational nonsense. Kübler-Ross’s critics worried that she might be encouraging those of her fans who had psychological problems to embrace death as a way out of their pain. With more attention being paid to Kübler-Ross’s unusual views, it’s not surprising that her notions about death are being taken less seriously

Which of the following best paraphrases the topic sentence?

1. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross helped generations of people conquer their fear of dying.
2. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross was never afraid of expressing unpopular points of view.
3. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross’s unusual personal beliefs have caused many people to dismiss her conclusions about the five stages of death.
4. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross was oddly obsessed with death and dying.

1. One of the best-known first pets was Fala, Franklin D. Roosevelt’s black Scottish terrier. The dog went everywhere with Roosevelt, once making the news when he was accidentally left behind on a trip to the Aleutian Islands. Roosevelt’s Republican opponents accused him of spending $8 million to send a destroyer back to fetch the dog. The president’s humorous defense of his dog only increased his popularity and probably helped Roosevelt win his historic fourth term. But Fala is not the only famous first pet; a number of other presidential pets have earned the public’s notice. President Richard Nixon’s dog Checkers, for instance, has been credited with saving his political career. In a speech on national television, Nixon defended accusations of financial irregularities by acknowledging the receipt of just one personal gift, a dog named Checkers. Nixon also claimed he would never give Checkers up.Gerald Ford’s dog Liberty was so popular, the cast of the TV comedy show Saturday Night Live often included Liberty in their skits about the president. Millie, the springer spaniel of George and Barbara Bush, appeared as the author of a New York Times bestseller. First Lady Hillary Clinton increased the fame of the Clinton’s first pets with her book “Dear Socks, Dear Buddy: Kids’ Letters to the First Pets.”

Which of the following best paraphrases the topic sentence?

1. Franklin D. Roosevelt’s dog Fala was America’s most famous First Pet.
2. Fala was the best-known of all the presidential pets.
3. Presidential pets are often in the news.
4. Several First Pets have achieved fame while residing in the White House.

1. Despite his failure as a presidential candidate, Ohio Congressman Dennis J. Kucinich’s suggestion that we establish a new Department of Peace within the federal government deserves serious consideration. A Department of Peace might help stop the senseless loss of life occurring all over the globe. If we in the United States develop more peaceful ways to coexist with other nations, we might influence others as well. A Department of Peace could, for example, study the conditions that promote both domestic and international harmony. A Department of Peace could also sponsor conflict prevention and resolution initiatives in war-torn countries. It could establish a Peace Academy to train people in nonviolent conflict resolution. All of these measures could ultimately save lives here at home and abroad.

Which of the following best paraphrases the topic sentence?

1. For two reasons, Congress should create a Department of Peace.
2. A Department of Peace might help put an end to global bloodshed.
3. Congressman Dennis Kucinich is a creative problem solver with vision.
4. The U.S. government focuses too much on war and not enough on peace.

1. Several grueling races around the globe test the limits of human endurance. For instance, the Marathon des Sables is an ultramarathon held every April in Morocco. It covers 150 miles in 6 days through blazing heat and some of the most difficult conditions imaginable. One participant said, “The most difficult part was waking up at 5 a.m. with your legs so sore you can hardly stand up, feet blistered, bloodied, and bandaged, and then having to run a marathon in 120-plus degree heat with a 20-pound pack.” In the Sahara Marathon, participants run 26 miles on sand roads through the harsh and unforgiving Sahara Desert. The Jungle Marathon is a 7-day, 124-mile race through the Amazon jungle of Brazil. For runners who prefer cooler climates, the Pike’s Peak Marathon is known as one of the toughest in the world, for participants must run 26.3 miles up a mountain in Colorado, ascending 7,815 feet. The Everest Marathon is a 26.2-mile race over the rough mountain terrain of Mount Everest, the highest mountain in the world. Runners can also participate in the North Pole Marathon, a 26.2-mile run over Arctic ice floes in sub-zero temperatures

Which of the following best paraphrases the topic sentence?

1. Marathon runners are the most physically fit people in the world.
2. Some marathon runners prefer races in hot climates, while others prefer racing in cold climates.
3. The Marathon des Sables is the world’s most difficult race.
4. Many marathon races held all over the world force participants to push themselves practically to the end of human endurance.

Original passage:

Nobody called him Abe–at least not to his face–because he loathed the nickname. It did not befit a respected professional who’d struggled hard to overcome the limitations of his frontier background. Frankly Lincoln enjoyed his status as a lawyer and politician, and he liked money, too, and used it to measure his worth. By the 1850′s, thanks to a combination of talent and sheer hard work, Lincoln was a man of substantial wealth. He had an annual income of around $5,000–the equivalent of many times that today–and large financial and real-estate investments.

Which one is the best paraphrase?

1. No one used Lincoln’s nickname, Abe, because he detested it. It didn’t go with a lawyer and politician who had worked to get away from the restrictions of his country heritage. Lincoln liked his new position, and his wealth, and used it to gauge his status. By mid-century, his skill and labor had made him a fairly wealthy man. He had a yearly income of approximately $5,000 – equal to several times that now – and hefty business and land commitments.

1. By the middle of the century, Lincoln enjoyed life as a well-respected lawyer and politician, having acquired a position of status and wealth that was well removed from his early “frontier background”. He now was bringing in $5,000 a year (this translates to $87,500 in 1997 dollars [Derks, 2]), and had substantial “financial and real estate investments”. As a consequence, he disliked being called Abe because of its association with his rural heritage. (Oates, 65)

Misalnya:

A person who feels persecuted in his/her home country may apply for political_________ .
A. appellation
B. appraisal
C. asylum
D. ascendance

Artinya: Seseorang yang merasa dianiaya dinegara asalnya dapat meminta/mengajukan ……. politik

A. panggilan
B. penilaian
C. suaka
D. kenaikan

Jawaban yang tepat adalah “C” yakni “asylum” atau “suaka“. Kata asylum memiliki makna yag sangat relevan dengan kalimat pada soal yaitu political asylum (suaka politik).

Mudah – mudahan penjelasan ini dapat bermanfaat bagi pembaca. Saya akan memberikan tips mengerjakan soal AcEPT pada lain kesempatan.

Dengan memperhatikan konsideran di atas, maka rancangan tes bahasa Inggris untuk kepentingan studi lanjut di Indonesia haruslah menguji ‘kemampuan membaca’ (Reading Comprehension) dan ‘komposisi’ (Composing Skills), ‘pengetahuan tatabahasa’ (Structure) dan ‘kosakata’ (Vocabulary), serta ‘kemahiran menyimak’ (Listening Comprehension), dengan pembobotan skor yang berbeda-beda sesuai dengan kegunaan masing-masing aspek kebahasaan itu dalam proses perkuliahan di Indonesia.

FORMAT TES

Tes terdiri dari 170 butir soal dalam bentuk multiple choice, dengan opsi jawaban A, B, C, dengan total waktu pengerjaan  + 145 menit. Adapun format tes dapat digambarkan sebagai berikut:

• Bagian I Listening Comprehension (20 butir soal), waktu pengerjaan kurang lebih 15 menit
• Bagian II Vocabulary (30 butir soal) dengan durasi 20 menit
• Bagian III Grammar and Structure (40 butir soal) dengan lama waktu pengerjaan 30 menit
• Bagian IV Reading Comprehension (40 butir soal) dengan lama waktu 40 menit, dan
• Bagian V Composing Skills (40 butir soal) dengan lama waktu pengerjaan 40 menit.

SCORING

Hasil tes AcEPT ini digambarkan dengan menggunakan Skor dalam kisaran 61 – 426. Dalam tes AcEPT ini tidak dikenal istilah  ‘lulus’ dan ‘tidak lulus’. Keberhasilan atau kegagalan peserta tes lazimnya dikaitkan dengan target score yang telah ditetapkan sebuah perguruan tinggi. Untuk Program S2 UGM, skor minimal yang telah ditetapkan adalah 210; dan untuk program S3 skor minimal yang harus dicapai calon mahasiswa adalah 250.  Universitas lain mungkin mengatur skor minimalnya masing-masing.

PERATURAN  UMUM

• Peserta telah datang ke tempat tes paling lambat 15 menit sebelum tes berlangsung.
• Peserta harus menunjukkan kartu identitas yang berlaku.
• Peserta tidak diperkenankan masuk ruang tes setelah materi tes didistribusikan kepada seluruh peserta tes.
• Peserta tes tidak diperkenankan membawa masuk ke dalam ruang tes: buku, kamus, kertas, catatan, penggaris, kalkulator, alarm jam, telpon genggam, alat-alat pendengar, perekam, kamera atau barang apapun  selain pensil 2-B,  karet penghapus, kartu ujian, dan kartu identitas yang berlaku.
• Peserta menempati tempat duduk sesuai dengan nomor yang telah ditentukan.
• Peserta tunduk pada semua peraturan yang diberlakukan dalam tes AcEPT, dan bersedia menerima sanksi berupa pembatalan hasil tes apabila:

1. Terbukti melakukan tes untuk orang lain atau menggunakan orang lain untuk melakukan tes untuk dirinya.
2. Tidak berhasil menunjukkan tanda pengenal yang dapat diterima.
3. Terdapat data yang tidak sama antara data yang terdapat dalam kartu identitas dan data yang diisikan dalam lembar jawab.
4. Menggunakan cara yang tidak patut untuk mengerjakan tes seperti mencontek, membuka catatan, bertanya pada peserta lain.
5. Berusaha untuk memberi atau menerima bantuan orang lain, berkomunikasi dengan cara apapun dengan orang lain mengenai isi materi tes

PETUNJUK PENGERJAAN SOAL

Setiap peserta tes harus mengikuti semua petunjuk pengerjaan soal yang ditulis dalam bahasa Inggris dalam buku tes. Supervisor Tes akan membacakan petunjuk-petunjuk umum  dalam bahasa Indonesia untuk memastikan bahwa semua peserta test mengerti apa yang harus dilakukan pada saat mengerjakan tes.  Adapun hal-hal yang harus diperhatikan para peserta tes pada saat tes berlangsung adalah:

Peserta harus mengerjakan ‘bagian’ yang telah ditentukan oleh Supervisor, dan tidak diperkenankan mengerjakan ‘bagian’ lain sebelum diinstruksikan untuk itu oleh Supervisor. Pelanggaran atas ketentuan ini dianggap sebagai kecurangan.

1. Peserta memilih opsi jawaban yang dianggap benar dengan cara menghitamkan bulatan secara penuh  pada bagian yang telah disediakan dalam lembar jawaban.
2. Peserta dapat menerka jawaban apabila tidak menemukan pilihan jawaban yang dianggap benar. Jawaban salah tidak dikenai pengurangan nilai.
3. Peserta harus menggunakan pensil 2B untuk membuat bulatan dalam lembar jawab, dan menghapusnya hingga bersih jika ingin mengubah pilihan jawaban sebelum waktu pengerjaan selesai.
4. Peserta tidak diperkenankan menulis atau membuat coretan apa pun dalam buku tes. Pelanggaran atas ketentuan ini dianggap sebagai kecurangan.
5. Peserta harus berhenti mengerjakan tes ketika Supervisor tes mengumumkan bahwa waktu pengerjaan tes telah habis.
6. Peserta harus tetap duduk di tempat ketika waktu pengerjaan habis sampai pengawas mengambili buku tes dan lembar jawaban.
7. Peserta dapat  meninggalkan ruangan setelah Supervisor tes mempersilakan peserta tes meninggalkan ruangan.

INSTRUKSI PADA MASING-MASING BAGIAN

Part  I  Listening Comprehension

A.      Numbers 1 – 10 test your ability to understand short statements in English. Each statement will be spoken just once. The statements you hear will not be written out for you. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your booklet.

[Soal no 1 – 10 menguji kemampuan Anda memahami pernyataan pendek dalam bahasa Inggris. Masing-masing pernyataan akan dibacakan sekali saja. Pernyataan yang Anda dengar tidak akan ditulis dalam tes. Anda tidak diperkenankan membuat catatan apapun dalam buku tes]

B.      In this part you will hear five short talks. After each talk, two questions will be asked based on the information given. Answer the questions following the talk, by choosing A, B, C, or D which best answers the questions. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book.

[Soal no 11 – 20 menguji kemampuan Anda mendengarkan teks pendek yang dibacakan narrator. Setelah teks diperdengarkan, Anda akan mendengarkan pula dua pertanyaan mengenai isi teks. Pilihlah A, B, C, atau D yang secara tepat menjawab pertanyaan yang diajukan. Anda tidak diperkenankan membuat catatan apapun pada buku soal].

Part II Vocabulary

A.      For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each blank space in the text.

[Untuk soal nomor 1 – 15, pilihlah kata atau frasa pada pilihan A, B, C, atau D  yang secara tepat melengkapi bagian kosong dalam bacaan].

B.      Choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D that best collocates (combines) with each of the underlined words or phrases in the following sentences.

[Untuk soal nomor 16 – 30, pilihlah kata atau frasa pada pilihan A, B, C, atau D yang menurut Anda berkolokasi dengan bagian yang digarisbawahi pada kalimat-kalimat berikut ini].

Part III  Grammar and Structure

A.      Sentence Completion

For questions 1 – 15, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each of the following sentences.

[Untuk soal nomor 1 – 15, pilihlah kata atau frasa pada pilihan A, B, C, atau D yang secara tepat melengkapi kalimat-kalimat berikut].

B.      Cloze Test

For questions 16 – 25, choose the word or phrase in A, B, C, or D which best completes each blank space in the text.

[Untuk soal nomor 16 – 25, pilihlah kata atau frasa pada pilihan A, B, C, dan D yang secara tepat melengkapi bagian-bagian yang kosong dalam teks bacaan].

C.      Error Identification

For questions 26 – 40, choose the word or phrase A, B, C, or D which is wrong.

[Untuk soal nomor 26 – 40, pilihlah kata atau frasa yang ‘tidak berterima’ atau ‘error’ yang terdapat  pada pilihan A, B, C, atau D]

Part IV  Reading Comprehension

Choose the best answer to each question based on the information which is stated or implied in the text.

[Pilihlah opsi yang paling tepat menjawab pertanyaan, berdasarkan informasi yang tersurat maupun tersirat dalam bacaan].

Part V Composing Skills

In this section of the test, you are required to demonstrate your ability to paraphrase sentences and to recognize language that is not appropriate for standard written English. There are five parts to this section, with special direction for each part.

[Pada bagian ini Anda diminta untuk menunjukkan kemampuan Anda memparafrasa kalimat dan mengenali bagian yang dianggap tidak baku dalam bahasa Inggris tulis. Ada lima sub bagian dengan perintah soal yang berbeda-beda].

A.      Numbers 1 – 10 contain complete and correct sentences. For each number, you are required to choose the most appropriate paraphrased sentence closest in meaning to the original one.

[Soal nomor 1 – 10 berisi kalimat yang telah lengkap dan benar. Untuk masing-masing nomor Anda diminta memilih parafrasa kalimat  A, B, C, dan D yang paling dekat artinya dengan kalimat asal].

B.      Numbers 11 – 20 contain incorrect sentences. The incorrect part of the sentence has been identified for you. You are required to find the correct option to replace the underlined part.

[Soal nomor 11 – 20 berisi kalimat yang ‘tidak berterima’. Bagian yang ‘tidak berterima’ atau ‘error’ pada masing-masing kalimat telah diberi tanda berupa garis bawah. Anda diminta mengganti bagian yang bergaris bawah dengan memilih opsi yang secara tepat mengganti bagian yang salah tersebut].

C.      Numbers 21 – 30, Choose the most appropriate and correct sentence.

[Untuk soal nomor 21 – 30, pilihlah kalimat yang ‘benar’ atau  sesuai dengan tatabahasa yang ‘berterima’ dalam bahasa Inggris].

D.      Numbers 31 – 36 contain jumbled sentences. One of the sentences has been underlined. You are required to choose the next sentence which logically follows the underlined one.

[Soal nomor 31 – 36 berisi kalimat-kalimat yang tidak disusun dengan urutan yang logis. Kalimat pertama telah digarisbawahi. Anda diminta untuk memilih kalimat berikutnya yang secara logis mengikuti urutan kalimat yang digarisbawahi].

E.       Numbers 37 – 40 contain jumbled sentences. You are required to identify the correct order to form a good paragraph.

[soal nomor 37 – 40 berisi kalimat-kalimat yang tidak disusun dengan urutan yang logis. Anda diminta untuk memilih opsi yang menujukkan urutan kalimat logis yang membentuk paragraph].

Source: http://adisutrisno.com/articles/mengenal-lebih-dekat-acept/